**Arctan 0**

### Why is Arcton (0) = 0?

You are wrong about what architects are.

Arcton is the function that answers this question, which angle gives theta tan (theta) = x?

Arcton 0 = 0 because tan 0 = sin 0 / because 0 = 0/1 = 0.

Arcton does not mean 1 / so.

(1) The work of the Arctan is: R> (ÃÂ € / 2, Â € / 2) with ownership

(2) Tan (Arctan (x)) = x and for all real numbers

(3) Arcton (tan (ÃŽÂ¸)) = all for all Â € / 2 <ÃŽÂ¸ <Ã Â 2/2.

Okay fine

Arcton (0)

= Arcton (tan (0)) // since tan (0) = 0

= 0 // As Â € / 2 <0 <Â € / 2, we can use property (3).

If you want a less formal explanation, I'll give it a try.

Â¸ = Arctan (x) is the angle between € / 2 and Â € / 2 where tin (ÃŽÂ¸) = x.

The anterior arc refers to the radians of the arc of the circle.

Therefore, arcton (x) is an angle measured in radians. Whenever the angle is Â.

Between € / 2 and € / 2, then tin (ÃŽÂ¸) = x means exactly the same

Arctan (x) =. So ten (0 radians) = 0 means exactly the same

Arcton (0) = 0 radians.

This page can help you.

Come back:

Why is Arcton (0) = 0?

I know arcton is equal to 1 / tan or kas / sin, but this is a mental problem for me. Since tan (0) = 0 and sin (0) = 0, you don't technically divide by z to get arcton (0), is it undended?

The problem I'm trying to solve is, yes ...

First, we need to know the range of y = arcton (x). The Arcton function has a limit, but its range is pi / 2 <y <pi / 2

y = Arctan (x)

Get information from both sides

tan (y) = x

x = 0

Tan (y) = 0

What values are 0 from pi / 2 to pi / 2? Only one thing: 0

Arctana (0) = 0.